this post was submitted on 10 Oct 2025
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[–] ccunning@lemmy.world 4 points 2 days ago* (last edited 2 days ago) (19 children)

Based on the down votes, maybe I’m missing something, but what is dehumanizing about referring to “the people of Gaza”?

Maybe I have a misunderstanding who that means and it some how excludes Palestinians?

ETA: It occurs to me that I haven’t seen the full context of Obama comments so that could change my perspective too…

Edit 2: Read it. Didn’t change my perspective at all.

[–] crank0271@lemmy.world 38 points 2 days ago (15 children)

It doesn't necessarily exclude Palestinians, but my interpretation is that using this language emphasizes that family ties of Israelis while simply referring to Palestinians as people (which, to be fair, is better than most Western media). It's similar to, also in said media, calling out Hamas "terrorism" or "attacks" while in the next breath lauding Israel's "peacekeeping missions" or something.

[–] lemmyman@lemmy.world 5 points 2 days ago (2 children)

My take is that he's specifically referring to the families of remaining Israeli hostages, and every Gazan, respectively

[–] calliope@retrolemmy.com 9 points 2 days ago* (last edited 2 days ago) (1 children)

Now that you mention this it seems really obvious.

It’s October 10th for me right now. The October 7th attacks were two years ago. He starts it with “two years of suffering for [some] Israeli families and the entirety of Gaza.”

Who has been suffering?

Families of the Oct. 7 attacks — Israelis as a whole haven’t been suffering. All people from Gaza have.

Went all the way to “uncle tom” for this one, huh OP?

Fun fact, every time you say Uncle Tom like this you perpetuate Jim Crow propaganda

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