this post was submitted on 17 Oct 2025
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Explanation: The US's reason for rebelling against the Brits - that we were taxed without being represented in parliament - was legitimate... but the offense does ring a little mild in comparison to the treatment many other holdings of the British Empire suffered under.
I wonder how the permanent residents of Puerto Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the U.S. Virgin Islands, the Northern Mariana Islands, and the District of Columbia feel about paying federal taxes without a having a voting representative in Congress.
DC is upset about it. Puerto Rico has been asked several times and can't seem to make up their minds.
Most people in US territories don't pay federal income tax.
But they pay other federal taxes... Social Security, Medicare, and less common taxes like customs and commodity taxes... and D.C. residents do pay federal income tax.
And they get Social Security and Medicare benefits.
Everyone pays customs and "commodity taxes" regardless of citizenship, those have nothing to do with government representation.
DC is the exception and absolutely should have tax exemption or representation. I mean, they should all have representation but there are reasons why they don't.
I didn't think the issue of "taxation without representation" hinged on whether or not the citizens benefitted from how the taxes were spent.
It's not like the Stamp Act of 1765 was an income tax, either.
There was no income taxes. There were tariffs and property taxes imposed by state governments. The Stamp Act first introduced taxes that went directly to the crown and funded British troops in the colonies.
But don't you see? Those taxes are not relevant to the idea of 'taxation without representation' because those taxes have no association with representation.
I don't see. Not trying to be obstinate, but I must be missing the nuance. What does it mean for a tax to have "association with representation?" Elected representatives passed the laws that implemented these taxes, right?